Content-Type: text/shitpost

Going down to the basement today I realized that this could actually be reasoned out, maybe. Every finite field has the form !!GF(p^n)!! for some prime !!p!! and some number !!n!!. There is not much to distinguish finite fields, they are all pretty much the same. Except maybe you could distinguish the !!n=1!! cases from the !!n>1!! cases, those are a little different.

Aha, but if you consider the !!n=0!! case, the answer becomes clear.